NEET UG

FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 01

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NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 01]

Attempt all question within time limit of 50 minutes.

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1. The hybridisations of the central atom in the chemical species, ClF₃, BrF₅ & [ICl₂]⁺, are respectively

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2. When a catalyst is added to a reaction at 27 ⁰C, its rate becomes twice, what is the decrease in the activation energy of the reaction?

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3. In which of the following case osmotic pressure should be minimum?

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4. Arrange the compounds in the order of boiling point:

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5. For which of the following conversion, there is no change in number of electronic exchange?

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6. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

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7. Which one of the following compounds can exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism?

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8. The major product ⓧ  of the following reaction is:

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9. In which one of the following molecules, all the bond lengths are equal?

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10. The functional group which is not present in the given structure is:

 

 

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11. For a zero-order reaction, which of the following is correct?

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12. What is the value of EMF of the cell at 298 K:

Pt|Fe²⁺(0·01 M), Fe³⁺(0·02 M) ‖ Ag⁺(1·0 M)|Ag(s)?

Given: E⁰(Ag⁺ ➝ Ag) = 0·80 V, and E⁰(Fe³⁺ ➝ Fe²⁺) = 0·77 V

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13. The freezing point of a 5g CH₃COOH in 100 g water solution is ﹣1·576 ᴼC, the degree of dissociation of CH₃COOH is:

[Kf for water is 1·86 Kkgmol⁻¹]

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14. tert-Butylmethyl ether [(CH₃)₃C-O-CH₃] cannot be prepared by:

(1) CH₃ONa + (CH₃)₃CBr

(2) (CH₃)₂C=CH₂ + CH₃OH + H⁺

(3) (CH₃)₃CONa + CH₃Br

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15. A sample of 0·50 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0·5 M H₂SO₄. The residual acid required 60 mL of 0·5 M solution of NaOH for neutralisation. What is the % composition of nitrogen in the compound? 

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16. The half-life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6·93 minutes. The time required for the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be

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17. If Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn²⁺ is X₁ V and Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn⁴⁺ is X₂ V, then what will be Eᴼ for Mn⁴⁺ ➝ Mn²⁺?

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18. X & Y in the given reaction sequence are respectively:

 

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19. Consider the formation of PCl₃:

P₄(s) + 6 Cl₂ (g) ➝ 4 PCl₃(l)

What is the maximum mass of PCl₃ that can be obtained from 125 g P₄ and 323 g Cl₂? [P = 31, Cl = 35·5]

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20. What is the entropy change of 1 mole sample of perfect gas when it expands isothermally so that its volume doubles?

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21. In the following two reaction sequences products Ⓒ and Ⓓ can be distinguished by:

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22. Identify the product (C) in the following sequence:

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23. Consider the following reversible reaction in a closed container:

N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2 NO₂(g)

The amounts of N₂O₄ & NO₂ present at equilibrium is found to be 7·64 g & 1·56 g respectively in a 3·0 L closed container. What will be the value of Kc? 

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24. For a chemical reaction at 127 ᴼC, the activation energy is 600R. The ratio of rate constant at 327 ᴼC to that at 127 ᴼC will be

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25. High spin and low spin complexes are not possible with the configuration:

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26. Arrange the compounds (A to E) in the order of solubility in hexane:

 

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27. The product (B) in the following reaction sequence is:

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28. What volume of O₂(g), measures at 0 ᴼC & 1 atm, is required to completely burn 2 L of butane gas under similar conditions?

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29. 0·1568 g of Fe is converted to Fe²⁺(aq) and requires 26·24 mL of a KMnO₄(aq) solution for its titration in acidic medium. What is the molarity of the KmnO₄(aq) solution?

5 Fe²⁺(aq) + MnO₄⁻(aq) + 8 H⁺ ➝ 5 Fe³⁺ + Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l)

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30. When 4 mole of A₂(g) and 2 mole of B₂(g) are taken in container of volume 1 L, following equilibriums established: A₂(g) + 2 B₂(g) ⇌ 3 C₂(g). If the mixture contains 1 mole of C₂(g) at equilibrium, then equilibrium constant will be:

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31. Among the following compounds, the one(s) that gives(give) effervescence with aq. NaHCO₃ solution is (are):

  1. (CH₃CO)₂O
  2. CH₃COOH
  3. PhOH
  4. CH₃COCHO

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32. The ratio of wavelengths of last line of Lyman series to that of second line of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is:

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33.  

Consider the structure of dimer of AlCl₃. The correct orders for bond parameters 

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34. For the reaction: 4 Fe(s) + 3 O₂(g) ➝ 2 Fe₂O₃(s), if ΔᵣS = ﹣550 JK⁻¹mol⁻¹ and ΔᵣHᴼ = ﹣1650 kJ mol⁻¹, then total entropy change for the reaction will be:

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35. The first four successive ionisation energy values for an element (A) are: x eV, 2x eV, 5x eV & 26x eV respectively. What should be the formula of its oxide?

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36. Given:

NH₃(g) + 3 Cl₂ (g) ⇌ NCl₃(g) + 3 HCl(g); ΔH = ﹣X

N₂ (g) + 3 H₂ (g) ⇌ 2 NH₃(g); ΔH = ﹣Y

H₂ (g) + Cl₂ (g) ⇌ 2 HCl (g); ΔH = Z

The heat of formation of NCl₃ will be:

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37. Which of the following is/are non reducing sugar(s)?

I. Fructose

II. Maltose

III. Sucrose

IV. Lactose

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38. Given equivalent conductivities at 298 K:

λᴼ for Ba(OH)₂ = 228·8 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹

λᴼ for BaCl₂ = 120·3 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹

λᴼ for NH₄Cl = 129·8 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹

And equivalent conductivity of 0·2 N NH₄OH solution is 2·383 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹, then the value of % degree of dissociation of NH₄OH will be nearly:

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39. If Kc = 3·92 × 10¹⁵, for the reaction:

Cu(s) + 2 Ag⁺(aq) ➝ Cu²⁺(aq) + 2 Ag(s).

What is the value of the Eᴼ for the reaction at 298 K? 

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40. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K in thermal contact with surroundings expands isothermally from 1·0 L to 2·0 L against a constant pressure of 3·0 atm, the change in entropy of the system would be:

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41. Which one is INCORRECT order for the property indicated against it?

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42. A rocket fuel contains two liquids hydrazine (N₂H₄) and dinitrogen tetraoxide (N₂O₄) which ignite on contact to form N₂(g) and water vapour. How many grams of N₂(g) form when 1·00 × 10² g of N₂H₄ and N₂O₄ are mixed?

\(2 N_2 H_4 (l) + N_2O_4 (l) \longrightarrow 3 N_2(g) + 4 H_2O (g)\)

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43. In the following reaction:

Mᴺ⁺ + MnO₄⁻ ➝ MO₃⁻ + Mn²⁺ + ½ O₂

If one mole of MnO₄⁻ oxidises 2·5 mole of Mᴺ⁺, then the value of N is: 

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44. When lanthanoid(Ln) is heated with carbon, the carbide which is not formed is:

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45. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) La(OH)₂ is less basic than Lu(OH)₃

(2) Europium (z=63) has largest atomic radii among Lanthanoids.

(3) Lanthanoids can form carbides Ln₃C, Ln₂C₃ and LnC₂ when heated with carbon.

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FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 02

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NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 02]

Attempt all question within time limit of 50 minutes.

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1. A swimmer coming out from a pool is covered with a film of water weighing about 18g. How much heat must be used at constant volume to evaporate this water at 298 K? ΔvapHᴼ(H₂O) = 44·01 kJ mol⁻¹.  

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2. Consider the following statements for the complex [Ni(NH₃)₆]Cl₂: 

1. It is an outer orbital octahedral complex
2. Hybridization of Ni is sp³d²
3. It is a paramagnetic complex
4. It is a diamagnetic complex 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

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3. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH₃ an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from 

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4. Choose the INCORRECT statement:

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5. 1 g of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298 K and 1 atmospheric pressure according to the equation:

C (graphite) + O₂(g) ➝ CO₂(g)

During the reaction, temperature rises from 298 K to 299 K. If the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter is 20·7 kJ K⁻¹g⁻¹, what is the enthalpy change for the above reaction at 298 K and 1 atm?

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6. The incorrect order among the following is:

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7. When 3-Iodo-2,2-dimethylbutane is treated with KOH in ethanol, three elimination products are formed, identify the major one:

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8. What is the average formal charge on each oxygen in [NO₃]⁻?

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9. A 2·250 g sample of a dicarboxylic acid having molecular mass 174 u was burnt in an excess of oxygen and yielded 4·548 g of CO₂ and 1·629 g of H₂O. What should be the molecular formula of the compound?

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10. Sample solutions of each of the three acids (given in figure) were titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). Each of the acid solutions had a concentration of 0.10 M. Which of the acid titrations had the highest pH at the endpoint?

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11. What is the minimum volume of water required to dissolve 1 g of CaSO₄ at 298 K? [Ksp(CaSO₄) at 298 K = 9 × 10⁻⁶]

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12. When hydrated ferric chloride is dissolved in aqueous solution of oxalic acid containing KOH, green crystals is obtained having formula

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13. Consider the following statements:

  1. The general range for melting point of lanthanoids is 1000 K to 1200 K.
  2. The lanthanoid having exceptionally high melting point is Sm (z = 62).
  3. Sum of first ionisation enthalpy and second ionisation Enthalpy for lanthanoids is around 1800 kJ/mol.

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14. The carbocation in which rearrangement is not feasible?

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15. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively

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16. Consider the following statements:

  1. Ecell should be positive for a galvanic cell to be feasible
  2. ΔG⁰ is ﹣ve for rusting of iron.
  3. Order for molar conductivity at infinite dilution: H⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ 
  4. Upon dilution equivalent conductivity of an electrolyte remains constant.

Choose the CORRECT statements:

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17. Which of the following pair of chemical species are NOT iso-structural as well as isoelectronic?

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18. A certain reaction is non spontaneous under standard conditions but becomes spontaneous at lower temperatures. What conclusions may be drawn under standard conditions?

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19. A hydrocarbon X is optically active. X upon hydrogenation gives an optically inactive  alkane Y. X is

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20. An aqueous solution containing 3 g of a non volatile solute of molar mass 111.6 g/mol in 500 g of water freezes at - 0.125 °C. The mass of ice separated out in grams from the solution is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)

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21. Identify the product (X) in the reaction:

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22. How many litres of water must be added to 1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution of pH of 3? 

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23. Which of the following reactions will yield propan-2-ol?

I. Acid catalysed hydration of propene.

II. Reaction of ethanal with CH₃MgI followed by hydrolysis

III. Reaction of methanal with C₂H₅MgI followed by hydrolysis

IV.  Oxidation of propene with neutral KMnO₄

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24. For the chemical reaction: A + B ➝ Product, the rate law is K [A]¹ × [B]¹. K = 5×10⁻³ L mol⁻¹s⁻¹, what is the concentration of ‘A’ remaining after 100 second if [A]₀ = 0·10 M & [B]₀ = 6 M? [log 20 = 1·3]

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25. On increasing temperature from 27 ⁰C to 37 ⁰C, the rate of a chemical reaction becomes twice. What is the activation energy of the reaction?

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26. When 50·0 mL of 0·10 M Fe(NO₃)₂ solution is mixed with 50·0 mL of 0·10 M KOH, a green precipitate is formed and the concentration of hydroxide ion becomes very small. Which of the following is the correct order of the concentrations of the remaining ions in the solution?

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27. When lead storage cell is full charged, aqueous solution of H₂SO₄ in it is 40% by mass. If specific gravity of this solution is 1·30, then what is the mass of pure H₂SO₄ in 100 mL of the solution?

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28. How many mole of Au will be deposited on the cathode when 0·60 F of electricity is passed through 1 L solution of 0·10 M Au³⁺(aq)?

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29. If bond dissociation energies for H-H, O=O and O-H bonds are respectively: 436, 499 and 464 kJ/mol, then what will be the enthalpy change for the reaction:

2 H₂(g) + O₂(g) ➝ 2 H₂O(l) ?

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30. Consider the following statements:

  1. Propanal can form either an (E) or (Z) enols via tautomerisation
  2. pKa of the protonated aminoacetic acid (2.3) is lower than the pKa of acetic acid (4.76) 
  3.  Hydration of unsymmetrical alkynes gives always ketone.

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31. Bond order in CO and oxidation number of carbon in it, are respectively:

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32. Benzene is treated with excess of CH₃Cl + AlCl₃ to give salt of benzene derivative having formula C₁₃H₂₁AlCl₄. How many moles of CH₃Cl are consumed per mole of benzene?

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33. For the chemical reaction:

2 CIO₂ (aq) + 20H⁻ (aq) ➝ CIO₂⁻(aq) + CIO₃⁻(aq) + H₂O(l).

The initial concentrations and rates of three experiments are given in the table. What is the rate law for this reaction?

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34. E⁰ for: [MnO₄]⁻ (aq) + 8 H⁺ (aq) + 5 e⁻ ⇌ Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l), is +1·51 V, what is the reduction potential in aqueous solution of pH = 2·5 having the ratio [Mn²⁺]:[MnO₄⁻] = 1 : 100?

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35. A sample of 1·0 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 100 mL of 0·5 M H₂SO₄. The residual acid required 50 mL of 1·0 M NaOH for neutralisation. What is the % of nitrogen in the organic compound?

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36. If radius of second orbit of Be³⁺ is x Å, then what is the radius of 4ᵗʰ orbit of He⁺

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37. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively

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38. Which of the following ion has zero spin only magnetic moment?

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39. Solution of A(l) [vp = 600 mmHg] and B(l) [vp = 800 mmHg] form ideal solution with certain composition. What should be the vapour pressure of the resulting solution?

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40. What will be the work done in isothermal reversible compression of a gas having initial pressure & volume (10 atm & 20 L) to final pressure & volume (20 atm & 10 L)?

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41. Which of the following tests are given positive by both aldehydes and ketones?

  1. 2, 4-DNP test
  2. Schiff’s test
  3. Benedicts test
  4. Tollen’s test

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42. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. What is the IUPAC name of B?

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43. What is the relation between compounds A and B?

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44. Electron gain enthalpies (in kJ mol⁻¹) of Cl(g) and F(g) are respectively:

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45. Based on CFT, which one of the following ions should be colourless?

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FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 03

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NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 03]

Attempt all question within time limit of 50 minutes.

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1. The emf of a cell corresponding to the following reaction is 0·199 V at 298 K.

Zn(s) + 2 H⁺ (aq) ➝ Zn²⁺(0·1 M) + H₂(g); (E⁰(Zn/Zn²⁺) = 0·76 V)

The approximate pH of the solution at the electrode where hydrogen is being produced is

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2. Among the following maximum number of resonating structures are possible for

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3. A balance having a precision of 0.001 g was used to measure a mass of a sample of about 15g. The number of significant figures to be reported in this measurement is

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4. p-Hydroxybenzophenone upon reaction with bromine in carbon tetrachloride gives:

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5. The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is:

1. 0.1 M Formic acid

2. 0.1 M Acetic acid

3. 0.1 M Benzoic acid

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6. An electron present in the third excited state of a H atom returns of the first excited state and then to the ground state. If λ₁ and λ₂ are the wavelengths of light emitted in these two transitions respectively, λ₁:λ₂  is

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7. Carbon suboxide (C₃O₂), has a linear structure. Which of the following is correct about C₃O₂?

I. Oxidation state of all three C atoms is +2.

II. Oxidation state of the central C atom is zero.

III. The molecule contains 4 σ and 4 π bonds.

IV. Hybridization of the central carbon atom is sp²

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8. For the reaction 2A + B ➝ C, the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are given in the table below: The rate law for the reaction is:

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9. Among the statements (a - d), the incorrect ones are:

(a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have very high magnetic moments

(b) When Δ₀ < P, the d-electron configuration of Co(III) in an octahedral complex is (t₂g)⁴(eg)² 

(c) Wavelength of light absorbed by [Co(en)₃]³⁺ is lower than that of [CoF₆]³⁻ 

(d) If the Δₒ for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is 18,000cm⁻¹, the Δt for its tetrahedral complex with the same ligand will be 16,000 cm⁻¹.

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10. The correct order of the following compounds towards addition of HCN is:

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11. The solubility products (Ksp) for three salts MX, MY₂ and MZ₃ are 1 × 10⁻⁸, 4 × 10⁻⁹ and 27 × 10⁻⁸, respectively. The correct order for solubilities of these salts is 

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12. The C–C bond length is maximum in

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13. In H-atom if electron absorbs a photon of 1·89 eV, then transition of electron is from

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14. The order of electron gain enthalpy in kJ/mol of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively are

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15. Consider the following reaction:

[CoCl₂(NH₃)₄]⁺ + Cl⁻ ➝ [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃] + NH₃.

Which of the following statements are correct:

  1. only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans isomer
  2. three isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis isomer
  3. two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans isomer
  4. two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is cis isomer

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16. HF has highest boiling point among hydrogen halides, because it has:

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17. NO₂ required for a reaction is produced by the decomposition of N₂O₅ in CCl₄ as per the equation:

2 N₂O₅ (g) ➝ 4 NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g)

The initial concentration of N₂O₅ is 3.00 mol L⁻¹ and it is 2.75 mol L⁻¹ after 30 minutes.

The rate of formation of NO₂ is :

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18. The reaction aA(g) ⇌ bB(g) + cC(g) was carried out at a certain temperature with an initial pressure of A = 30 bar. Initially ‘B’ and ‘C’ were not present. If the equilibrium partial pressures of ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are 20, 5 and 10 bar respectively, then a:b:c is 

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19. A current of 5.0 A flows for 4.0 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of metal M. This results in deposition of 0.25 mol of the metal M at the cathode. The oxidation state of M in the molten salt is (1 Faraday = 96485 C mol⁻¹)

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20. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0·6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol⁻¹) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol⁻¹) in 100 mL of water at 27 ⁰C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is :

(R = 0.08206 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

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21. A cricket ball is moving with a kinetic energy of 5 J. The wavelength of the ball will be [h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ Js]

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22. O₂(g) is paramagnetic in nature because it has 

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23. The number of possible optical isomers for the complexes MA₂B₂ with sp³ and dsp² hybridized metal atom, respectively is:

[Note: A and B are uni-dentate neutral and uni-dentate mono-anionic ligands, respectively]

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24. In order to oxidize a mixture of one mole of each of FeC₂O₄, Fe₂(C₂O₄)₃, FeSO₄ and Fe₂(SO₄)₃ in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO₄ required is:

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25. If azimuthal quantum number (l) of an electron in an orbital is 2, the shape of the orbital should be

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26. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The correct order of the atomic numbers of X, Y and Z is:

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27. The hydrocarbon that cannot be prepared effectively by Wurtz reaction is

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28. The qualitative plots given represent the yield of the product, [XY], at equilibrium in the reaction X(g) + Y(g) ⇌  XY(g), as a function of temperature, at total pressures P₁ and P₂. The reaction is

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29. The ammonia(NH₃) released on quantitative reaction of 0.6 g urea (NH₂CONH₂) with sodium hydroxide(NaOH) can be neutralized by

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30. Increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds for SN1 substitution is:

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31. If Ni²⁺ ion is replaced with Pt²⁺ ion in complex [NiCl₂Br₂], which of the following would change:

  1. Magnetic moment
  2. Geometry
  3. Geometrical Isomerism
  4. Optical Isomerism

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32. A bottle of H₃PO₄ solution contains 70%(w/w) acid. If the density of the solution is 1·54 g cm⁻³, the volume of the H₃PO₄ solution required to prepare 1 L of I N solution is

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33. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and 600 mm Hg, respectively at 298 K. On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in vapour phase, respectively are:

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34. What is the product of following reaction?

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35. The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons ejected by a metal surface increased from 0.6 eV to 0.9 eV when the energy of the incident photons was increased by 20%. The work function of the metal is

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36. The theory that can completely/properly explain the nature of bonding in [Ni(CO)₄] is

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37. The mass ratio of steam and hydrogen is found to be 1:1·5 at equilibrium in the following reaction:

3 Fe(s) + 4 H₂O (g) ⇌ Fe₃O₄(s) + 4 H₂(g)

The value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) of the above reaction is

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38. Among the following, the correct statement/s about ‘p’ block elements is/are

I. The valence shell electronic configuration of all of them is ns²np¹⁻⁶, where n=1,2,3. . .

II. Only in p block, metals, nonmetals and metalloids are present.

III. Halogens have the lowest negative electron gain enthalpy in the respective periods.

IV. Noble gases have no tendency to accept an electron and hence they have large negative values of electron gain enthalpy.

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39. The correct statements among I to III are:

I. Valence bond theory cannot explain the color exhibited by transition metal complexes

II. Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively the magnetic properties of transition metal complexes

III. Valence bond theory cannot distinguish ligands as weak and strong field ones

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40. The quantum number of four electrons are given below:

 I. n = 4, l = 2, m = 2, s = ﹣½

II. n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + ½

III. n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = + ½

IV. n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = ﹣½

The correct order of their increasing energies will be:

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41. A sample of a gas was analysed and found to contain 2·34 g of nitrogen and 5·34 g of oxygen. The vapour density of the gas was found to be about 45·9. What is the molecular formulas of this gas?

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42. Gas phase reactions (i) and (ii) are of first and second order respectively

2N₂O₅ (g) ➝  4NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g) ...................... (i)

2NO(g) + O₂(g) ➝ 2NO₂(g).   ....................... (ii)

Under certain conditions, the rate constants (k₁, k₂) of (i) and (ii) respectively, have the same numerical value, when the concentrations of the reactants are expressed in mol/dm³.

If the concentrations are expressed in mol/mL, the correct relationship between k₁ and k₂ is

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43. What would be the molality of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI? (molar mass of KI = 166 g mol⁻¹)

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44. A₂(g) + 4 B₂(g) ⇌ 2 AB₄(g), ΔH < 0

Product formation is favoured by

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45. The process in which an ideal gas undergoes change from X to Y as shown in the following diagram is

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FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 04

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NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 04]

Attempt all question within time limit of 50 minutes.

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1. At 27°C one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm. The values of U and q are respectively (R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1)

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2. The following reaction occurs in the Blast furnace where iron ore is reduced to iron metal :

\(Fe_2 O_3(s) \ + \ 3CO(g) \rightleftharpoons Fe(l)\ +\ 3CO_2(g)\)

Using the Le-Chateler's principle, predict which one of the following will not disturb the equilibrium.

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3. When 2-methylbut-3-en-2-ol is treated with concentrated hydrochloric acid, 1-chloro-3-methylbut-2-ene is produced, as shown in the above figure. Choose the INCORRECT statement about the reaction:

pastedGraphic.png

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4. What is the free energy change per mole when liquid water boils against 1 atm pressure? (ΔHvap = 2.0723 kJ/g)

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5. The correct order of the spin only magnetic moment of metal ions in the following low spin complexes, [V(CN)₆)⁴⁻, [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻, [Ru(NH₃)₆]³⁺, [Cr(NH₃)₆], and [Cr(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is:

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6. The species having bond order different from that in CO is

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7. What is the hybridization state of the circled nitrogens, respectively?

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8. Identify the INCORRECT IUPAC Name of an Organic Compound:

I. 2, 3-Diethylbutane

II. 1-Aminomethanal

III. 3-Oxopropanal

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9. Enthalpies of combustion of CH₃OH, C, and H₂ are respectively: ﹣676, ﹣394 and ﹣242 kJ mol⁻¹, respectively. What would be the enthalpy of formation of CH₃OH?

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10. The reduction potential values of A, B and C are +1.46 V, −1.01 V and −2.13 V respectively.  Which of the following is the correct order of reducing power?

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11. The IUPAC name of the given structure is:

pastedGraphic.png

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12. At -20 °C and 1 atm pressure, a cylinder is filled with equal number of H₂, I₂ and HI molecules for the reaction,

H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI (g), the Kp for the process is: z × 10⁻¹. Then z is equal to

[Given: R = 0.082 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹]

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13. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively

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14. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement?

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15. In case of XeO₂F₂ and XeF₆, Xe is with

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16. If the half-life of a first-order reaction is 10 min, how long will it take for 75% of the substance to decompose?

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17. A compound ( C₄H₈O) which gives 2,4-DNP derivative and negative iodoform test is

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18. HF reacts with SiF₄ to give H₂[SiF₆], this is possible because

I. the number of valence orbitals of silicon is greater than four, and part of them are not occupied by valence electrons;

II. the number of valence electrons of silicon is four; 

III. Having smaller size and basic nature of F⁻, favoured the formation of octahedral compound with Si.

Choose the correct statement(s):

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19. For the given reaction, choose the correct expression of Kc from the following :

\(Fe^{3+}(aq)\ +\ SCN^-(aq) \rightleftharpoons [FeSCN]^{2+}(aq)\)

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20. What should be the correct order for bond dissociation energy?

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21. The IUPAC name of the given structure is:

pastedGraphic.png

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22. Cis but-2-ene and trans but-2-ene are

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23. Boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute 1 is equal to the boiling point of 8% aqueous solution of a non volatile solute 2. The relation between molecular weight 1 and 2 is:

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24. For the given hypothetical reactions, the equilibrium constants are as follows:

X ⇌ Y; K₁= 1.0

Y ⇌ Z; K₂ = 2.0

Z ⇌ W; K₃ = 4.0

The equilibrium constant for the reaction, X ⇌ W is

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25. The enthalpy of vapourisation of a liquid is 30 kJ mol–1 and entropy of vapourisation is 75 mol–1 K. The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is

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26. A hydrocarbon X is optically active. X upon hydrogenation gives an optically inactive  alkane Y. X is

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27. CₐHₓNₑ + CuO ➝ CO₂ + H₂O + N₂ + Cu. In the balanced chemical reaction for 1 mole of CₐHₓNₑ, number of moles of Cu produced would be:

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28. In an experiment 0.22 g of magnesium pyrophosphate was produced from 0.1 g of an organic compound.  Percentage of  phosphorus in the compound is

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29. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule?

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30. For the following oxyacid formula HClOₓ (x lies between 1 to 4 ), which of the following is INCORRECT if value of x increases?

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31. 2·44 g of benzoic acid (C₆H₅COOH, Molar Mass = 122·00) dissolved in 25 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2·45 K. Molal depression constant for benzene is 4.9 K kg mol⁻¹. What is the percentage association of acid if it forms dimer in solution?

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32. The periodicity in properties is a result primarily of

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33. Which of the following is true about Fuel Cell

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34. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl₂, O₃, ClF₃ and SF₆ respectively, are:

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35. A non-volatile solute is added to a pure liquid solvent. Which of the following changes occurs?

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36. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (K,) for the decomposition reaction N₂O₄ ⇌ 2NO₂, is expressed by Kp = (4x²P) /(1 - x²), where P = pressure, x = extent of decomposition. Which one of the following statements is true?

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37. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4 Sm⁻¹. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in Sm²/mol will be

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38. Elevation in boiling point for 1·5 molal solution of glucose in water is 4 K. The depression in freezing point of 4.5 molal solution of glucose in water is 4 K. The ratio of molal elevation constant to molal depression constant (Kb/Kf) is

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39. Consider the following statement(s):

I. Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethylcyclo- hexanone does not.

II. There are two –NH₂ groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involvedin the formation of semicarbazones
III. Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol 

The correct statements is/are:

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40. Consider the following statements regarding magnetism of two complexes: 

I. [CoF₆]³⁻is a paramagnetic and high spin complex
II. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is a diamagnetic and low spin complex

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

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41. In estimation of sulphur, 0.314 g of an organic compound gave 0.9626 g of barium sulphate (BaSO₄ = 233 g mol⁻¹). What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound?

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42. The number of structural and configurational isomers of a bromo compound , C₅H₉Br, formed by the addition of HBr to pent-2-yne respectively are 

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43. Which one of the following reagents react differently with HCHO(methanal), CH₃CHO(ethanal) and CH₃COCH₃ (propanone)?

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44. For a first-order reaction, the time required to reduce the concentration from 1.0 M to 0.5 M is 20 min. Time required to reduce it from 2.0 M to 1.0 M is:

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45. In a reaction A → Products, doubling the concentration of A increases the rate by 8 times. The order of the reaction is:

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FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 04

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NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 05]

Attempt all question within time limit of 50 minutes.

1 / 45

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1. The number of σ bonds in the structure 卐 is

2 / 45

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2. X & Y in the given reaction sequence are respectively:

 

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3. A compound ( C₄H₈O) which gives 2,4-DNP derivative and negative iodoform test is

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4. In a qualitative analysis when H₂S is passed through the solution of a salt acidified with HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO₃, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution will give deep blue ________. 

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5. The best reagent for converting 2-phenylpropanamide into 2- phenylpropanamine is

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6. If 1 g NaOH is added to 200 mL of 2·5 M solution of NaOH(aq), then what is the molarity of the resulting solution?

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7. A sample of 1·0 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 100 mL of 0·5 M H₂SO₄. The residual acid required 50 mL of 1·0 M NaOH for neutralisation. What is the % of nitrogen in the organic compound?

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8. Which one of the following reagents react differently with HCHO(methanal), CH₃CHO(ethanal) and CH₃COCH₃ (propanone)?

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9. If Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn²⁺ is X₁ V and Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn⁴⁺ is X₂ V, then what will be Eᴼ for Mn⁴⁺ ➝ Mn²⁺?

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10. In the following reaction:

Mᴺ⁺ + MnO₄⁻ ➝ MO₃⁻ + Mn²⁺ + ½ O₂

If one mole of MnO₄⁻ oxidises 2·5 mole of Mᴺ⁺, then the value of N is: 

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11. Choose the INCORRECT statement:

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12. Which of the following is the Incorrect order for bond angle?

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13. What is the average formal charge on each oxygen in [NO₃]⁻?

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14. Choose the INCORRECT statement:

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15. At 27°C one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm. The values of U and q are respectively (R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1)

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16. Which of the following is the empty set?

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17. Which of the following is not true about brown ring test?

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18. Correct order for molar conductivity at infinite dilution is:

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19. E⁰ for: [MnO₄]⁻ (aq) + 8 H⁺ (aq) + 5 e⁻ ⇌ Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l), is +1·51 V, what is the reduction potential in aqueous solution of pH = 2·5 having the ratio [Mn²⁺]:[MnO₄⁻] = 1 : 100?

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20. How many mole of Au will be deposited on the cathode when 0·60 F of electricity is passed through 1 L solution of 0·10 M Au³⁺(aq)?

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21. An orange solid on heating gives a colourless gas and a green solid which can be reduced to metal by aluminium powder. Orange and green solids are respectively,

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22. If at 298K the bond energies of C–H, C–C, C=C and H – H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol–1, then value of enthalpy change for the reaction, H₂C=CH₂ + H₂(g) ➝ H₃C-CH₃(g) at 298 K will be 

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23. If a solution of diethyl ether, (C₂H₅)₂O, in ethanol, C₂H₅OH, is treated as an ideal solution, what is the mole fraction of diethyl ether in the vapour over an equimolar solution of these two liquids at 20 ⁰C? 

[P⁰(diethyl ether) = 480 mm Hg & P⁰(ethanol) = 50 mm Hg at 20⁰C.]

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24. Which of the following pair of compounds are polar?

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25. In estimation of sulphur, 0.314 g of an organic compound gave 0.9626 g of barium sulphate (BaSO₄ = 233 g mol⁻¹). What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound?

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26. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. What is the IUPAC name of B?

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27. EMF of the cell

Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(0·01M) ‖ HCl(1M)| H₂(g, 1 atm)|Pt

At 298 K is 0·701 V. What is the minimum amount of NaOH required to neutralise the acid present in cathodic compartment completely? [Eᴼ(Zn²⁺➝ Zn) = 0·76 V] 

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28. Consider the following statements:

  1. Ecell should be positive for a galvanic cell to be feasible
  2. ΔG⁰ is ﹣ve for rusting of iron.
  3. Order for molar conductivity at infinite dilution: H⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ 
  4. Upon dilution equivalent conductivity of an electrolyte remains constant.

Choose the CORRECT statements:

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29. What is the minimum volume of water required to dissolve 1 g of CaSO₄ at 298 K? [Ksp(CaSO₄) at 298 K = 9 × 10⁻⁶]

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30. When the Intermediate complex of Balz-Schiemann reaction heated in NaNO₂ with Cu forms

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31. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule?

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32. A certain reaction is non spontaneous under standard conditions but becomes spontaneous at lower temperatures. What conclusions may be drawn under standard conditions?

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33. Bond order in CO and oxidation number of carbon in it, are respectively:

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34. What volume of O₂(g), measures at 0 ᴼC & 1 atm, is required to completely burn 2 L of butane gas under similar conditions?

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35. The reduction potential values of A, B and C are +1.46 V, −1.01 V and −2.13 V respectively.  Which of the following is the correct order of reducing power?

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36. At 518 °C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363 Torr, was 1.00 Torr/s when 5% had reacted and 0.5 Torr/s when 33% had reacted. The order of the reaction is

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37. What is the correct IUPAC name of the structure given?

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38. For the reaction: 4 Fe(s) + 3 O₂(g) ➝ 2 Fe₂O₃(s), if ΔᵣS = ﹣550 JK⁻¹mol⁻¹ and ΔᵣHᴼ = ﹣1650 kJ mol⁻¹, then total entropy change for the reaction will be:

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39. The reaction of 2, 4-hexadiene with one equivalent of bromine at 0⁰ C gives a mixture of two compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’. If ‘X’ is 4, 5-dibromohex-2-ene, ‘Y’ is

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40. The number of proper subsets of the set {1, 2, 3} is

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41. The periodicity in properties is a result primarily of

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42. When lanthanoid(Ln) is heated with carbon, the carbide which is not formed is:

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43. 10+20

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44. Which of the following reactions will yield propan-2-ol?

I. Acid catalysed hydration of propene.

II. Reaction of ethanal with CH₃MgI followed by hydrolysis

III. Reaction of methanal with C₂H₅MgI followed by hydrolysis

IV.  Oxidation of propene with neutral KMnO₄

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45. 5*40

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