FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 01
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NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 01]
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1. For the reaction: 4 Fe(s) + 3 O₂(g) ➝ 2 Fe₂O₃(s), if ΔᵣS = ﹣550 JK⁻¹mol⁻¹ and ΔᵣHᴼ = ﹣1650 kJ mol⁻¹, then total entropy change for the reaction will be:
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2. Choose the INCORRECT statement:
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3. The product (B) in the following reaction sequence is:
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4. For which of the following acid base titration no indicator is available?
For titration of weak acid and weak base there is no indicator.
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5. The half-life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6·93 minutes. The time required for the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be
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6. The stepwise stability constants, at 303 K, of [Ni(OH₂)₆₋ₓ (NH₃)ₓ]²⁺,(x = 1 to 6) as: log K₁ = 2·79, log K₂ = 2·26, log K₃ = 1·69, log K₄ = 1·25, log K₅ = 0·74 and log K₆ = 0·03. What should be the β₆ for [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺?
Β₆ = K₁ × K₂ × K₃ × K₄ × K₅ × K₆
log Β₆ = log K₁ + log K₂ + log K₃ + log K₄ + log K₅ + log K₆
= 2.79 + 2.26 + 1.68 + 1.25 + 0.74 + 0.03
= 8.76
∴ β₆ = 5.75 × 10⁸
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7. Which of the following is the INCORRECT order for the melting points of d-block elements?
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8. The bond dissociation enthalpies for the nitrogen–nitrogen bond in N₂ and [N₂]⁻ are respectively:
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9. A(l) having boiling point 210 ᴼC and B(l) having boiling point 90 ᴼC form an azeotropic mixture at certain composition. What should be the boiling point of the azeotrope if solution of A & B shows negative deviation from ideal behaviour?
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10. For which of the following conversion, there is no change in number of electronic exchange?
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11. The freezing point of a 5g CH₃COOH in 100 g water solution is ﹣1·576 ᴼC, the degree of dissociation of CH₃COOH is:
[Kf for water is 1·86 Kkgmol⁻¹]
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12.
What is the configuration of the following compound?
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13. What is the entropy change of 1 mole sample of perfect gas when it expands isothermally so that its volume doubles?
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14. Which of the following is the composition of sucrose?
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15. The first four successive ionisation energy values for an element (A) are: x eV, 2x eV, 5x eV & 26x eV respectively. What should be the formula of its oxide?
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16. If Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn²⁺ is X₁ V and Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn⁴⁺ is X₂ V, then what will be Eᴼ for Mn⁴⁺ ➝ Mn²⁺?
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17. The volume of ethanol (d = 1·15 g/mL) that has to be added to prepare 100 mL of 0·5 M ethanol solution in water is:
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18. What volume of O₂(g), measures at 0 ᴼC & 1 atm, is required to completely burn 2 L of butane gas under similar conditions?
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19. Choose the correct statement about K₂Cr₂O₇:
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20. Which of the following is/are non reducing sugar(s)?
I. Fructose
II. Maltose
III. Sucrose
IV. Lactose
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21. The number of σ bonds in the structure 卐 is
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22. A sample of 0·50 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0·5 M H₂SO₄. The residual acid required 60 mL of 0·5 M solution of NaOH for neutralisation. What is the % composition of nitrogen in the compound?
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23. The functional group which is not present in the given structure is:
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24. Identify the product (C) in the following sequence:
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25. If at 298K the bond energies of C–H, C–C, C=C and H – H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol–1, then value of enthalpy change for the reaction,
H₂C=CH₂ + H₂(g) ➝ H₃C-CH₃(g)
at 298 K will be
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26. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
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27. Which of the following is not true about brown ring test?
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28. Which of the following is not true about brown ring test?
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29. The ratio of wavelengths of last line of Lyman series to that of second line of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is:
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30. The major product in the given reaction is:
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31. A rocket fuel contains two liquids hydrazine (N₂H₄) and dinitrogen tetraoxide (N₂O₄) which ignite on contact to form N₂(g) and water vapour. How many grams of N₂(g) form when 1·00 × 10² g of N₂H₄ and N₂O₄ are mixed?
\(2 N_2 H_4 (l) + N_2O_4 (l) \longrightarrow 3 N_2(g) + 4 H_2O (g)\)
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32. Which one of the following compounds can exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism?
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33. When 4 mole of A₂(g) and 2 mole of B₂(g) are taken in container of volume 1 L, following equilibriums established: A₂(g) + 2 B₂(g) ⇌ 3 C₂(g). If the mixture contains 1 mole of C₂(g) at equilibrium, then equilibrium constant will be:
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34. The correct order for O-O bond length in the species is:
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35. For a zero-order reaction, which of the following is correct?
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36. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K in thermal contact with surroundings expands isothermally from 1·0 L to 2·0 L against a constant pressure of 3·0 atm, the change in entropy of the system would be:
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37. Which of the following is not correct?
(1) La(OH)₂ is less basic than Lu(OH)₃
(2) Europium (z=63) has largest atomic radii among Lanthanoids.
(3) Lanthanoids can form carbides Ln₃C, Ln₂C₃ and LnC₂ when heated with carbon.
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38. Which of the following is the Incorrect order for bond angle?
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39. tert-Butylmethyl ether [(CH₃)₃C-O-CH₃] cannot be prepared by:
(1) CH₃ONa + (CH₃)₃CBr
(2) (CH₃)₂C=CH₂ + CH₃OH + H⁺
(3) (CH₃)₃CONa + CH₃Br
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40. When lanthanoid(Ln) is heated with carbon, the carbide which is not formed is:
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41. In the following two reaction sequences products Ⓒ and Ⓓ can be distinguished by:
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42. Correct order for molar conductivity at infinite dilution is:
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43. The hybridisations of the central atom in the chemical species, ClF₃, BrF₅ & [ICl₂]⁺, are respectively
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44. In which of the following case osmotic pressure should be minimum?
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45. In the following reaction:
Mᴺ⁺ + MnO₄⁻ ➝ MO₃⁻ + Mn²⁺ + ½ O₂
If one mole of MnO₄⁻ oxidises 2·5 mole of Mᴺ⁺, then the value of N is:
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FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 02
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 02]
1. Electron gain enthalpies (in kJ mol⁻¹) of Cl(g) and F(g) are respectively:
2. A hydrocarbon X is optically active. X upon hydrogenation gives an optically inactive alkane Y. X is
3. How many mole of Au will be deposited on the cathode when 0·60 F of electricity is passed through 1 L solution of 0·10 M Au³⁺(aq)?
4. Based on CFT, which one of the following ions should be colourless?
5. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively
6. Solution of A(l) [vp = 600 mmHg] and B(l) [vp = 800 mmHg] form ideal solution with certain composition. What should be the vapour pressure of the resulting solution?
7. Benzene is treated with excess of CH₃Cl + AlCl₃ to give salt of benzene derivative having formula C₁₃H₂₁AlCl₄. How many moles of CH₃Cl are consumed per mole of benzene?
8. How many stereogenic carbons are in the structure:
9. For the redox reaction:
x MnO₄⁻ + y C₂O₄²⁻ + z H⁺ ➝ Mn²⁺ + CO₂ + H₂O, x, y and z for the balanced reaction are
10. At 518 °C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363 Torr, was 1.00 Torr/s when 5% had reacted and 0.5 Torr/s when 33% had reacted. The order of the reaction is
11. A swimmer coming out from a pool is covered with a film of water weighing about 18g. How much heat must be used at constant volume to evaporate this water at 298 K? ΔvapHᴼ(H₂O) = 44·01 kJ mol⁻¹.
12. Which of the following pair of compounds are polar?
13. Sample solutions of each of the three acids (given in figure) were titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). Each of the acid solutions had a concentration of 0.10 M. Which of the acid titrations had the highest pH at the endpoint?
The weakest acid (smallest Kₐ) will have the highest pH at the endpoint.
14. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron in an atom within a distance of 0·1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity?
15. 1 g of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298 K and 1 atmospheric pressure according to the equation:
C (graphite) + O₂(g) ➝ CO₂(g)
During the reaction, temperature rises from 298 K to 299 K. If the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter is 20·7 kJ K⁻¹g⁻¹, what is the enthalpy change for the above reaction at 298 K and 1 atm?
16. When glucose is treated with bromine water and concentrated nitric acid separately, is converted respectively into:
17. If a solution of diethyl ether, (C₂H₅)₂O, in ethanol, C₂H₅OH, is treated as an ideal solution, what is the mole fraction of diethyl ether in the vapour over an equimolar solution of these two liquids at 20 ⁰C?
[P⁰(diethyl ether) = 480 mm Hg & P⁰(ethanol) = 50 mm Hg at 20⁰C.]
18. Consider the following statements:
19. Identify the product (X) in the reaction:
20. How many litres of water must be added to 1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution of pH of 3?
21. Consider the following statements for the complex [Ni(NH₃)₆]Cl₂:
1. It is an outer orbital octahedral complex 2. Hybridization of Ni is sp³d² 3. It is a paramagnetic complex 4. It is a diamagnetic complex
Which of the statements given above are correct?
22. An aqueous solution containing 3 g of a non volatile solute of molar mass 111.6 g/mol in 500 g of water freezes at - 0.125 °C. The mass of ice separated out in grams from the solution is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)
23. Which of the following tests are given positive by both aldehydes and ketones?
24. What is the correct IUPAC name of the structure given?
25. Which of the following pair of chemical species are NOT iso-structural as well as isoelectronic?
26. A sample of 1·0 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 100 mL of 0·5 M H₂SO₄. The residual acid required 50 mL of 1·0 M NaOH for neutralisation. What is the % of nitrogen in the organic compound?
27. Bond order in CO and oxidation number of carbon in it, are respectively:
28. What is the average formal charge on each oxygen in [NO₃]⁻?
29. Choose the INCORRECT statement:
30. Which of the following statements are correct about :C≡O: molecule?
31. Identify the pair of linear molecules:
32. For the chemical reaction: A + B ➝ Product, the rate law is K [A]¹ × [B]¹. K = 5×10⁻³ L mol⁻¹s⁻¹, what is the concentration of ‘A’ remaining after 100 second if [A]₀ = 0·10 M & [B]₀ = 6 M? [log 20 = 1·3]
Since [B]₀ >> [A]₀
R = K’ [A], [K’ = K×[B]₀]
∴ K’ = (2·303/t) × log (C₁/C₂)
i.e., 5 × 10⁻³ × 6 = (2·303/100) × log(0·1/C₂)
On solving, C₂ = 5 × 10⁻³ M
33. In a qualitative analysis when H₂S is passed through the solution of a salt acidified with HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO₃, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution will give deep blue ________.
34. The chemical species having two π-bonds and ½ σ-bond is:
35. If radius of second orbit of Be³⁺ is x Å, then what is the radius of 4ᵗʰ orbit of He⁺
36. If bond dissociation energies for H-H, O=O and O-H bonds are respectively: 436, 499 and 464 kJ/mol, then what will be the enthalpy change for the reaction:
2 H₂(g) + O₂(g) ➝ 2 H₂O(l) ?
37. For the chemical reaction:
2 CIO₂ (aq) + 20H⁻ (aq) ➝ CIO₂⁻(aq) + CIO₃⁻(aq) + H₂O(l).
The initial concentrations and rates of three experiments are given in the table. What is the rate law for this reaction?
38. Consider the following statements about plot of Intensity versus wavelength during black body radiation at various temperatures:
Choose the CORRECT statement
39. Which of the following reactions will yield propan-2-ol?
I. Acid catalysed hydration of propene.
II. Reaction of ethanal with CH₃MgI followed by hydrolysis
III. Reaction of methanal with C₂H₅MgI followed by hydrolysis
IV. Oxidation of propene with neutral KMnO₄
40. Consider the following statements:
Choose the CORRECT statements:
41. A 2·250 g sample of a dicarboxylic acid having molecular mass 174 u was burnt in an excess of oxygen and yielded 4·548 g of CO₂ and 1·629 g of H₂O. What should be the molecular formula of the compound?
42. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH₃ an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from
43. Absolute value of which of the following thermodynamic property can be calculated?
44. What is the EMF of the cell: Al(s) | Al³⁺(0.01 M) || Fe²⁺(0.1 M) | Fe(s)? [Given Eᵒ(Al³⁺/Al) = -1.66 V and Eᵒ(Fe²⁺/Fe) = -0.45 V]
45. E⁰ for: [MnO₄]⁻ (aq) + 8 H⁺ (aq) + 5 e⁻ ⇌ Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l), is +1·51 V, what is the reduction potential in aqueous solution of pH = 2·5 having the ratio [Mn²⁺]:[MnO₄⁻] = 1 : 100?
pH = -log[H⁺]
[H⁺] = 10⁻²·⁵
Now apply the Nernst equation:
E = E⁰﹣(0·06)/(5) × log([Mn²⁺])/[MnO₄⁻][H⁺]⁸
E = 1·51 ﹣0·216 = + 1·294 V
The average score is 6%
FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 03
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 03]
1. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0·6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol⁻¹) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol⁻¹) in 100 mL of water at 27 ⁰C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is :
(R = 0.08206 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
2. A chemical reaction is carried out at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ (T₂ > T₁) and also with and without a catalyst.
The statement that is correct among the following is
3. In H-atom if electron absorbs a photon of 1·89 eV, then transition of electron is from
4. The process in which an ideal gas undergoes change from X to Y as shown in the following diagram is
5. A cricket ball is moving with a kinetic energy of 5 J. The wavelength of the ball will be [h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ Js]
6. Carbon suboxide (C₃O₂), has a linear structure. Which of the following is correct about C₃O₂?
I. Oxidation state of all three C atoms is +2.
II. Oxidation state of the central C atom is zero.
III. The molecule contains 4 σ and 4 π bonds.
IV. Hybridization of the central carbon atom is sp²
7. p-Hydroxybenzophenone upon reaction with bromine in carbon tetrachloride gives:
8. O₂(g) is paramagnetic in nature because it has
9. 2 g of a metal oxide MxOy reduced to 0·99 g of the metal. If the atomic mass of the metal is 55 g mol⁻¹, x and y are respectively:
10. The reaction of 2, 4-hexadiene with one equivalent of bromine at 0⁰ C gives a mixture of two compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’. If ‘X’ is 4, 5-dibromohex-2-ene, ‘Y’ is
11. The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is:
1. 0.1 M Formic acid
2. 0.1 M Acetic acid
3. 0.1 M Benzoic acid
12. The quantum number of four electrons are given below:
I. n = 4, l = 2, m = 2, s = ﹣½
II. n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + ½
III. n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = + ½
IV. n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = ﹣½
The correct order of their increasing energies will be:
13. The correct statements among I to III are:
I. Valence bond theory cannot explain the color exhibited by transition metal complexes
II. Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively the magnetic properties of transition metal complexes
III. Valence bond theory cannot distinguish ligands as weak and strong field ones
14. The ratio of the mass percentages of 'C & H' and 'C & O' of a saturated acyclic organic compound 'X' are 4 : 1 and 3 : 4 respectively. Then, the moles of oxygen gas required for complete combustion of two moles of organic compound 'X' is
15. The hydrocarbon that cannot be prepared effectively by Wurtz reaction is
16. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The correct order of the atomic numbers of X, Y and Z is:
17. Among the statements (a - d), the incorrect ones are:
(a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have very high magnetic moments
(b) When Δ₀ < P, the d-electron configuration of Co(III) in an octahedral complex is (t₂g)⁴(eg)²
(c) Wavelength of light absorbed by [Co(en)₃]³⁺ is lower than that of [CoF₆]³⁻
(d) If the Δₒ for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is 18,000cm⁻¹, the Δt for its tetrahedral complex with the same ligand will be 16,000 cm⁻¹.
18. What is the product of following reaction?
19. The qualitative plots given represent the yield of the product, [XY], at equilibrium in the reaction X(g) + Y(g) ⇌ XY(g), as a function of temperature, at total pressures P₁ and P₂. The reaction is
20. The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons ejected by a metal surface increased from 0.6 eV to 0.9 eV when the energy of the incident photons was increased by 20%. The work function of the metal is
21. The C–C bond length is maximum in
22. The reaction aA(g) ⇌ bB(g) + cC(g) was carried out at a certain temperature with an initial pressure of A = 30 bar. Initially ‘B’ and ‘C’ were not present. If the equilibrium partial pressures of ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are 20, 5 and 10 bar respectively, then a:b:c is
23. HF has highest boiling point among hydrogen halides, because it has:
24. Identify the chemical species having maximum number of lone pair of electrons on the central atom, in its most stable structure:
25. An organic compound 'A' (C4H10) when treated with conc. HI undergoes, cleavage yield compound 'B' and C'. ‘B' gives yellow precipitate with AgNO₃ where as tautomerizes to 'D'. 'D' gives positive iodoform test. 'A' could be:
26. Two solutions A and B, each of 100 L was made by dissolution of 4g of NaOH and 9.8 g of H₂SO₄ in water, respectively. The pH of the resultant solution obtained from mixing 40 L of solution A and 10 L of solution B is
27. If Ni²⁺ ion is replaced with Pt²⁺ ion in complex [NiCl₂Br₂], which of the following would change:
28. For the reaction 2A + B ➝ C, the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are given in the table below: The rate law for the reaction is:
29. A bottle of H₃PO₄ solution contains 70%(w/w) acid. If the density of the solution is 1·54 g cm⁻³, the volume of the H₃PO₄ solution required to prepare 1 L of I N solution is
30. Energy of electron in 2ⁿᵈ orbit of Be³⁺ is ﹣x eV atom⁻¹, what is the energy of electron in 4ᵗʰ orbit of He⁺?
31. Consider the following reaction:
[CoCl₂(NH₃)₄]⁺ + Cl⁻ ➝ [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃] + NH₃.
Which of the following statements are correct:
32. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and 600 mm Hg, respectively at 298 K. On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in vapour phase, respectively are:
33. If azimuthal quantum number (l) of an electron in an orbital is 2, the shape of the orbital should be
34. The solubility products (Ksp) for three salts MX, MY₂ and MZ₃ are 1 × 10⁻⁸, 4 × 10⁻⁹ and 27 × 10⁻⁸, respectively. The correct order for solubilities of these salts is
35. The best sequence of reactions for the following conversion is
36. An electron present in the third excited state of a H atom returns of the first excited state and then to the ground state. If λ₁ and λ₂ are the wavelengths of light emitted in these two transitions respectively, λ₁:λ₂ is
37. Which of the following metal will exhibit photoelectric effect with photon having longest wavelength?
38. The vapour pressure of benzene is 53.3 kPa at 60.6 ∞C, but it fall to 51.5 kPa when 19 g of a nonvolatile organic compound is dissolved in 500 g benzene. The molar mass of the nonvolatile compound is [assume dilute solution]
39. A₂(g) + 4 B₂(g) ⇌ 2 AB₄(g), ΔH < 0
Product formation is favoured by
40. The mass ratio of steam and hydrogen is found to be 1:1·5 at equilibrium in the following reaction:
3 Fe(s) + 4 H₂O (g) ⇌ Fe₃O₄(s) + 4 H₂(g)
The value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) of the above reaction is
41. A current of 5.0 A flows for 4.0 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of metal M. This results in deposition of 0.25 mol of the metal M at the cathode. The oxidation state of M in the molten salt is (1 Faraday = 96485 C mol⁻¹)
42. The order of electron gain enthalpy in kJ/mol of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively are
43. Among the following, the correct statement/s about ‘p’ block elements is/are
I. The valence shell electronic configuration of all of them is ns²np¹⁻⁶, where n=1,2,3. . .
II. Only in p block, metals, nonmetals and metalloids are present.
III. Halogens have the lowest negative electron gain enthalpy in the respective periods.
IV. Noble gases have no tendency to accept an electron and hence they have large negative values of electron gain enthalpy.
44. NO₂ required for a reaction is produced by the decomposition of N₂O₅ in CCl₄ as per the equation:
2 N₂O₅ (g) ➝ 4 NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g)
The initial concentration of N₂O₅ is 3.00 mol L⁻¹ and it is 2.75 mol L⁻¹ after 30 minutes.
The rate of formation of NO₂ is :
45. The correct order of the following compounds towards addition of HCN is:
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FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 04
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 04]
1. The reduction potential values of A, B and C are +1.46 V, −1.01 V and −2.13 V respectively. Which of the following is the correct order of reducing power?
2. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl₂, O₃, ClF₃ and SF₆ respectively, are:
3. At 27°C one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm. The values of U and q are respectively (R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1)
4. What is the hybridization state of the circled nitrogens, respectively?
5. Boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute 1 is equal to the boiling point of 8% aqueous solution of a non volatile solute 2. The relation between molecular weight 1 and 2 is:
6. The periodicity in properties is a result primarily of
7. A compound ( C₄H₈O) which gives 2,4-DNP derivative and negative iodoform test is
8. What should be the correct order for bond dissociation energy?
9. If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.1 M solution of urea are placed on two sides of the semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say that
10. Incorrect statement among the following :
11. For the following oxyacid formula HClOₓ (x lies between 1 to 4 ), which of the following is INCORRECT if value of x increases?
12. For the given reaction, choose the correct expression of Kc from the following :
\(Fe^{3+}(aq)\ +\ SCN^-(aq) \rightleftharpoons [FeSCN]^{2+}(aq)\)
13. Cis but-2-ene and trans but-2-ene are
14. In a reaction A → Products, doubling the concentration of A increases the rate by 8 times. The order of the reaction is:
15. If the half-life of a first-order reaction is 10 min, how long will it take for 75% of the substance to decompose?
16. Consider a reaction with the following data:
What is the rate law?
17. A non-volatile solute is added to a pure liquid solvent. Which of the following changes occurs?
18. Correct order for molar conductivity at infinite dilution is:
19. In an experiment 0.22 g of magnesium pyrophosphate was produced from 0.1 g of an organic compound. Percentage of phosphorus in the compound is
20. The number of structural and configurational isomers of a bromo compound , C₅H₉Br, formed by the addition of HBr to pent-2-yne respectively are
21. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4 Sm⁻¹. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in Sm²/mol will be
22. CₐHₓNₑ + CuO ➝ CO₂ + H₂O + N₂ + Cu. In the balanced chemical reaction for 1 mole of CₐHₓNₑ, number of moles of Cu produced would be:
23. 2 Mn²⁺ + 5 S₂O₈²⁻ + 8 H₂O ➝ 2 MnO₄⁻ + 10 SO₄²⁻ + 16 H⁺, In this reaction the element undergoing decrease in oxidation number is:
24. Consider the following statements regarding magnetism of two complexes:
I. [CoF₆]³⁻is a paramagnetic and high spin complex II. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is a diamagnetic and low spin complex
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
25. Which one of the following reagents react differently with HCHO(methanal), CH₃CHO(ethanal) and CH₃COCH₃ (propanone)?
26. An orange solid on heating gives a colourless gas and a green solid which can be reduced to metal by aluminium powder. Orange and green solids are respectively,
27. 2·44 g of benzoic acid (C₆H₅COOH, Molar Mass = 122·00) dissolved in 25 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2·45 K. Molal depression constant for benzene is 4.9 K kg mol⁻¹. What is the percentage association of acid if it forms dimer in solution?
28. HF reacts with SiF₄ to give H₂[SiF₆], this is possible because
I. the number of valence orbitals of silicon is greater than four, and part of them are not occupied by valence electrons;
II. the number of valence electrons of silicon is four;
III. Having smaller size and basic nature of F⁻, favoured the formation of octahedral compound with Si.
Choose the correct statement(s):
29. For a first-order reaction, the time required to reduce the concentration from 1.0 M to 0.5 M is 20 min. Time required to reduce it from 2.0 M to 1.0 M is:
30. The enthalpy of vapourisation of a liquid is 30 kJ mol–1 and entropy of vapourisation is 75 mol–1 K. The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is
31. Identify the INCORRECT IUPAC Name of an Organic Compound:
I. 2, 3-Diethylbutane
II. 1-Aminomethanal
III. 3-Oxopropanal
32. The species having bond order different from that in CO is
33. The IUPAC name of the given structure is:
34. Which of the following best explains why salt is spread on icy roads in winter?
35. Enthalpies of combustion of CH₃OH, C, and H₂ are respectively: ﹣676, ﹣394 and ﹣242 kJ mol⁻¹, respectively. What would be the enthalpy of formation of CH₃OH?
36. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (K,) for the decomposition reaction N₂O₄ ⇌ 2NO₂, is expressed by Kp = (4x²P) /(1 - x²), where P = pressure, x = extent of decomposition. Which one of the following statements is true?
37. Which of the following is true about Fuel Cell
38. Consider the following statement(s):
I. Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethylcyclo- hexanone does not.
II. There are two –NH₂ groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involvedin the formation of semicarbazones III. Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol
The correct statements is/are:
39. For the given hypothetical reactions, the equilibrium constants are as follows:
X ⇌ Y; K₁= 1.0
Y ⇌ Z; K₂ = 2.0
Z ⇌ W; K₃ = 4.0
The equilibrium constant for the reaction, X ⇌ W is
40. In case of XeO₂F₂ and XeF₆, Xe is with
41. A hydrocarbon X is optically active. X upon hydrogenation gives an optically inactive alkane Y. X is
42. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule?
43. The IUPAC name of the given structure is:
44. When 2-methylbut-3-en-2-ol is treated with concentrated hydrochloric acid, 1-chloro-3-methylbut-2-ene is produced, as shown in the above figure. Choose the INCORRECT statement about the reaction:
45. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement?
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 05]
1. What is the EMF of the cell: Al(s) | Al³⁺(0.01 M) || Fe²⁺(0.1 M) | Fe(s)? [Given Eᵒ(Al³⁺/Al) = -1.66 V and Eᵒ(Fe²⁺/Fe) = -0.45 V]
2. A sample of a gas was analysed and found to contain 2·34 g of nitrogen and 5·34 g of oxygen. The vapour density of the gas was found to be about 45·9. What is the molecular formulas of this gas?
3. Among the following maximum number of resonating structures are possible for
4. The freezing point of a 5g CH₃COOH in 100 g water solution is ﹣1·576 ᴼC, the degree of dissociation of CH₃COOH is:
6.
7. Which of the following is/are non reducing sugar(s)?
8. An orange solid on heating gives a colourless gas and a green solid which can be reduced to metal by aluminium powder. Orange and green solids are respectively,
9. In case of XeO₂F₂ and XeF₆, Xe is with
10. In which of the following case osmotic pressure should be minimum?
11. Consider the following statements regarding magnetism of two complexes:
12. Which of the following is the empty set?
Since, x² + 1 = 0, x² = −1, ∴ x = ± i, ∴ x is not real, but x is real as per question.
∴ No value of x is possible
13. If 1 g NaOH is added to 200 mL of 2·5 M solution of NaOH(aq), then what is the molarity of the resulting solution?
14. A compound ( C₄H₈O) which gives 2,4-DNP derivative and negative iodoform test is
15. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH₃ an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from
16. What is the minimum volume of water required to dissolve 1 g of CaSO₄ at 298 K? [Ksp(CaSO₄) at 298 K = 9 × 10⁻⁶]
S = 3 × 10⁻³ mol/L = 136 × 3 × 10⁻³ g/L = 0·408 g/L
∴ For 1 g CaSO₄ to be dissolved, 2·45 L of water will be required.
17. In which one of the following molecules, all the bond lengths are equal?
18. Cis but-2-ene and trans but-2-ene are
19. For the following oxyacid formula HClOₓ (x lies between 1 to 4 ), which of the following is INCORRECT if value of x increases?
20. At 518 °C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363 Torr, was 1.00 Torr/s when 5% had reacted and 0.5 Torr/s when 33% had reacted. The order of the reaction is
21. The best sequence of reactions for the following conversion is
22. Identify the INCORRECT IUPAC Name of an Organic Compound:
23. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl₂, O₃, ClF₃ and SF₆ respectively, are:
24. 0·1568 g of Fe is converted to Fe²⁺(aq) and requires 26·24 mL of a KMnO₄(aq) solution for its titration in acidic medium. What is the molarity of the KmnO₄(aq) solution?
5 Fe²⁺(aq) + MnO₄⁻(aq) + 8 H⁺ ➝ 5 Fe³⁺ + Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l)
25. Given:
NH₃(g) + 3 Cl₂ (g) ⇌ NCl₃(g) + 3 HCl(g); ΔH = ﹣X
N₂ (g) + 3 H₂ (g) ⇌ 2 NH₃(g); ΔH = ﹣Y
H₂ (g) + Cl₂ (g) ⇌ 2 HCl (g); ΔH = Z
The heat of formation of NCl₃ will be:
26. E⁰ for: [MnO₄]⁻ (aq) + 8 H⁺ (aq) + 5 e⁻ ⇌ Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l), is +1·51 V, what is the reduction potential in aqueous solution of pH = 2·5 having the ratio [Mn²⁺]:[MnO₄⁻] = 1 : 100?
28. Choose CORRECT Statement:
I. In graphite distance between two layers is 340pm.
II. Graphite conducts electricity between layers.
III. Graphite is very soft and slippery.
29. The coordination numbers of Au and Pt in the complexes formed when they are treated with aqua-regia are respectively:
30. Based on CFT, which one of the following ions should be colourless?
31. What should be the correct order for bond dissociation energy?
32. In the following reaction:
33. The first four successive ionisation energy values for an element (A) are: x eV, 2x eV, 5x eV & 26x eV respectively. What should be the formula of its oxide?
34. Which of the following statements is correct about a first-order reaction?
35. At -20 °C and 1 atm pressure, a cylinder is filled with equal number of H₂, I₂ and HI molecules for the reaction,
H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI (g), the Kp for the process is: z × 10⁻¹. Then z is equal to
[Given: R = 0.082 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹]
36. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively
37. For a chemical reaction at 127 ᴼC, the activation energy is 600R. The ratio of rate constant at 327 ᴼC to that at 127 ᴼC will be
39. The correct order of the spin only magnetic moment of metal ions in the following low spin complexes, [V(CN)₆)⁴⁻, [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻, [Ru(NH₃)₆]³⁺, [Cr(NH₃)₆], and [Cr(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is:
40. If at 298K the bond energies of C–H, C–C, C=C and H – H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol–1, then value of enthalpy change for the reaction,
41. Among the following compounds, the one(s) that gives(give) effervescence with aq. NaHCO₃ solution is (are):
42. What is the entropy change of 1 mole sample of perfect gas when it expands isothermally so that its volume doubles?
43. A swimmer coming out from a pool is covered with a film of water weighing about 18g. How much heat must be used at constant volume to evaporate this water at 298 K? ΔvapHᴼ(H₂O) = 44·01 kJ mol⁻¹.
44. Identify the product (X) in the reaction:
45. Choose the INCORRECT statement:
