FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 01
Thanks for Attempting the QUIZ
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 01]
1 / 45
1. 0·1568 g of Fe is converted to Fe²⁺(aq) and requires 26·24 mL of a KMnO₄(aq) solution for its titration in acidic medium. What is the molarity of the KmnO₄(aq) solution?
5 Fe²⁺(aq) + MnO₄⁻(aq) + 8 H⁺ ➝ 5 Fe³⁺ + Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l)
2 / 45
2.
Consider the structure of dimer of AlCl₃. The correct orders for bond parameters
3 / 45
3. X & Y in the given reaction sequence are respectively:
4 / 45
4. The major product ⓧ of the following reaction is:
5 / 45
5. Identify the major product (Y):
6 / 45
6. Consider the following reversible reaction in a closed container:
N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2 NO₂(g)
The amounts of N₂O₄ & NO₂ present at equilibrium is found to be 7·64 g & 1·56 g respectively in a 3·0 L closed container. What will be the value of Kc?
7 / 45
7. If Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn²⁺ is X₁ V and Eᴼ for MnO₄⁻ ➝ Mn⁴⁺ is X₂ V, then what will be Eᴼ for Mn⁴⁺ ➝ Mn²⁺?
8 / 45
8. The first four successive ionisation energy values for an element (A) are: x eV, 2x eV, 5x eV & 26x eV respectively. What should be the formula of its oxide?
9 / 45
9. Which one of the following compounds can exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism?
10 / 45
10. The major product in the given reaction is:
11 / 45
11. tert-Butylmethyl ether [(CH₃)₃C-O-CH₃] cannot be prepared by:
(1) CH₃ONa + (CH₃)₃CBr
(2) (CH₃)₂C=CH₂ + CH₃OH + H⁺
(3) (CH₃)₃CONa + CH₃Br
12 / 45
12. What volume of O₂(g), measures at 0 ᴼC & 1 atm, is required to completely burn 2 L of butane gas under similar conditions?
13 / 45
13. In the following two reaction sequences products Ⓒ and Ⓓ can be distinguished by:
14 / 45
14. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K in thermal contact with surroundings expands isothermally from 1·0 L to 2·0 L against a constant pressure of 3·0 atm, the change in entropy of the system would be:
15 / 45
15. EMF of the cell
Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(0·01M) ‖ HCl(1M)| H₂(g, 1 atm)|Pt
At 298 K is 0·701 V. What is the minimum amount of NaOH required to neutralise the acid present in cathodic compartment completely? [Eᴼ(Zn²⁺➝ Zn) = 0·76 V]
16 / 45
16. For a zero-order reaction, which of the following is correct?
17 / 45
17. The ratio of wavelengths of last line of Lyman series to that of second line of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is:
18 / 45
18. Which of the following is the INCORRECT order for the melting points of d-block elements?
19 / 45
19. Which of the following is/are non reducing sugar(s)?
I. Fructose
II. Maltose
III. Sucrose
IV. Lactose
20 / 45
20. The functional group which is not present in the given structure is:
21 / 45
21. What is the value of EMF of the cell at 298 K:
Pt|Fe²⁺(0·01 M), Fe³⁺(0·02 M) ‖ Ag⁺(1·0 M)|Ag(s)?
Given: E⁰(Ag⁺ ➝ Ag) = 0·80 V, and E⁰(Fe³⁺ ➝ Fe²⁺) = 0·77 V
22 / 45
22. What is the entropy change of 1 mole sample of perfect gas when it expands isothermally so that its volume doubles?
23 / 45
23. For which of the following conversion, there is no change in number of electronic exchange?
24 / 45
24. At 25 ᴼC, if the solubility of Ag₂CrO₄ in 0·01 M Na₂CrO₄ solution be 5× 10⁻⁶ M then Ksp of Ag₂CrO₄ will be
25 / 45
25. Which of the following is not correct?
(1) La(OH)₂ is less basic than Lu(OH)₃
(2) Europium (z=63) has largest atomic radii among Lanthanoids.
(3) Lanthanoids can form carbides Ln₃C, Ln₂C₃ and LnC₂ when heated with carbon.
26 / 45
26. Given:
NH₃(g) + 3 Cl₂ (g) ⇌ NCl₃(g) + 3 HCl(g); ΔH = ﹣X
N₂ (g) + 3 H₂ (g) ⇌ 2 NH₃(g); ΔH = ﹣Y
H₂ (g) + Cl₂ (g) ⇌ 2 HCl (g); ΔH = Z
The heat of formation of NCl₃ will be:
27 / 45
27. The correct order for the wavelengths of absorption for the following is
28 / 45
28. Which one is INCORRECT order for the property indicated against it?
29 / 45
29. Which of the following is the composition of sucrose?
30 / 45
30. The number of σ bonds in the structure 卐 is
31 / 45
31. Number of mole of Cr₂O₇²⁻ required to oxidise 4 mole of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium is:
32 / 45
32. Which of the following is not true about brown ring test?
33 / 45
33. Consider the formation of PCl₃:
P₄(s) + 6 Cl₂ (g) ➝ 4 PCl₃(l)
What is the maximum mass of PCl₃ that can be obtained from 125 g P₄ and 323 g Cl₂? [P = 31, Cl = 35·5]
34 / 45
34. For a chemical reaction at 127 ᴼC, the activation energy is 600R. The ratio of rate constant at 327 ᴼC to that at 127 ᴼC will be
35 / 45
35. If at 298K the bond energies of C–H, C–C, C=C and H – H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol–1, then value of enthalpy change for the reaction, H₂C=CH₂ + H₂(g) ➝ H₃C-CH₃(g) at 298 K will be
36 / 45
36. A rocket fuel contains two liquids hydrazine (N₂H₄) and dinitrogen tetraoxide (N₂O₄) which ignite on contact to form N₂(g) and water vapour. How many grams of N₂(g) form when 1·00 × 10² g of N₂H₄ and N₂O₄ are mixed?
\(2 N_2 H_4 (l) + N_2O_4 (l) \longrightarrow 3 N_2(g) + 4 H_2O (g)\)
37 / 45
37. Given equivalent conductivities at 298 K:
λᴼ for Ba(OH)₂ = 228·8 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
λᴼ for BaCl₂ = 120·3 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
λᴼ for NH₄Cl = 129·8 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
And equivalent conductivity of 0·2 N NH₄OH solution is 2·383 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹, then the value of % degree of dissociation of NH₄OH will be nearly:
38 / 45
38. Choose the correct statement about K₂Cr₂O₇:
39 / 45
39. Among the following compounds, the one(s) that gives(give) effervescence with aq. NaHCO₃ solution is (are):
40 / 45
40. A(l) having boiling point 210 ᴼC and B(l) having boiling point 90 ᴼC form an azeotropic mixture at certain composition. What should be the boiling point of the azeotrope if solution of A & B shows negative deviation from ideal behaviour?
41 / 45
41. The product (B) in the following reaction sequence is:
42 / 45
42. Identify the product (C) in the following sequence:
43 / 45
43. For the equilibrium:
CaCO₃(s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO₂(g); Kp = 1·64 atm at 1000 K. 50 g of CaCO₃ in a 10 L closed vessel is heated to 1000 K. Percentage of CaCO₃ that remains unreacted at equilibrium is [R = 0·082 L atm K⁻¹mol⁻¹]
44 / 45
44. For which of the following acid base titration no indicator is available?
For titration of weak acid and weak base there is no indicator.
45 / 45
45. Choose the INCORRECT statement:
Your score is
Exit
FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 02
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 02]
1. At 518 °C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363 Torr, was 1.00 Torr/s when 5% had reacted and 0.5 Torr/s when 33% had reacted. The order of the reaction is
2. Based on CFT, which one of the following ions should be colourless?
3. What will be the work done in isothermal reversible compression of a gas having initial pressure & volume (10 atm & 20 L) to final pressure & volume (20 atm & 10 L)?
4. For the chemical reaction:
2 CIO₂ (aq) + 20H⁻ (aq) ➝ CIO₂⁻(aq) + CIO₃⁻(aq) + H₂O(l).
The initial concentrations and rates of three experiments are given in the table. What is the rate law for this reaction?
5. If a solution of diethyl ether, (C₂H₅)₂O, in ethanol, C₂H₅OH, is treated as an ideal solution, what is the mole fraction of diethyl ether in the vapour over an equimolar solution of these two liquids at 20 ⁰C?
[P⁰(diethyl ether) = 480 mm Hg & P⁰(ethanol) = 50 mm Hg at 20⁰C.]
6. The chemical species having two π-bonds and ½ σ-bond is:
7. Solution of A(l) [vp = 600 mmHg] and B(l) [vp = 800 mmHg] form ideal solution with certain composition. What should be the vapour pressure of the resulting solution?
8. Choose CORRECT Statement:
I. In graphite distance between two layers is 340pm.
II. Graphite conducts electricity between layers.
III. Graphite is very soft and slippery.
9. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively
10. Consider the following statements:
11. A hydrocarbon X is optically active. X upon hydrogenation gives an optically inactive alkane Y. X is
12. Which of the following pair of chemical species are NOT iso-structural as well as isoelectronic?
13. Number of phenols possible with molecular formula C₇H₈O is:
14. On increasing temperature from 27 ⁰C to 37 ⁰C, the rate of a chemical reaction becomes twice. What is the activation energy of the reaction?
15. Consider the following statements:
Choose the CORRECT statements:
16. Sample solutions of each of the three acids (given in figure) were titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). Each of the acid solutions had a concentration of 0.10 M. Which of the acid titrations had the highest pH at the endpoint?
The weakest acid (smallest Kₐ) will have the highest pH at the endpoint.
17. A sample of 1·0 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 100 mL of 0·5 M H₂SO₄. The residual acid required 50 mL of 1·0 M NaOH for neutralisation. What is the % of nitrogen in the organic compound?
18. Which of the following pair of compounds are polar?
19. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron in an atom within a distance of 0·1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity?
20. What is the relation between compounds A and B?
21. The incorrect order among the following is:
22. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. What is the IUPAC name of B?
23. If bond dissociation energies for H-H, O=O and O-H bonds are respectively: 436, 499 and 464 kJ/mol, then what will be the enthalpy change for the reaction:
2 H₂(g) + O₂(g) ➝ 2 H₂O(l) ?
24. Which of the following ion has zero spin only magnetic moment?
25. For the chemical reaction: A + B ➝ Product, the rate law is K [A]¹ × [B]¹. K = 5×10⁻³ L mol⁻¹s⁻¹, what is the concentration of ‘A’ remaining after 100 second if [A]₀ = 0·10 M & [B]₀ = 6 M? [log 20 = 1·3]
Since [B]₀ >> [A]₀
R = K’ [A], [K’ = K×[B]₀]
∴ K’ = (2·303/t) × log (C₁/C₂)
i.e., 5 × 10⁻³ × 6 = (2·303/100) × log(0·1/C₂)
On solving, C₂ = 5 × 10⁻³ M
26. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively
27. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH₃ an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from
28. When 3-Iodo-2,2-dimethylbutane is treated with KOH in ethanol, three elimination products are formed, identify the major one:
29. Bond order in CO and oxidation number of carbon in it, are respectively:
30. An aqueous solution containing 3 g of a non volatile solute of molar mass 111.6 g/mol in 500 g of water freezes at - 0.125 °C. The mass of ice separated out in grams from the solution is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)
31. How many mole of Au will be deposited on the cathode when 0·60 F of electricity is passed through 1 L solution of 0·10 M Au³⁺(aq)?
32. When lead storage cell is full charged, aqueous solution of H₂SO₄ in it is 40% by mass. If specific gravity of this solution is 1·30, then what is the mass of pure H₂SO₄ in 100 mL of the solution?
33. Benzene is treated with excess of CH₃Cl + AlCl₃ to give salt of benzene derivative having formula C₁₃H₂₁AlCl₄. How many moles of CH₃Cl are consumed per mole of benzene?
34. A 2·250 g sample of a dicarboxylic acid having molecular mass 174 u was burnt in an excess of oxygen and yielded 4·548 g of CO₂ and 1·629 g of H₂O. What should be the molecular formula of the compound?
35. 1 g of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298 K and 1 atmospheric pressure according to the equation:
C (graphite) + O₂(g) ➝ CO₂(g)
During the reaction, temperature rises from 298 K to 299 K. If the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter is 20·7 kJ K⁻¹g⁻¹, what is the enthalpy change for the above reaction at 298 K and 1 atm?
36. What is the minimum volume of water required to dissolve 1 g of CaSO₄ at 298 K? [Ksp(CaSO₄) at 298 K = 9 × 10⁻⁶]
S = 3 × 10⁻³ mol/L = 136 × 3 × 10⁻³ g/L = 0·408 g/L
∴ For 1 g CaSO₄ to be dissolved, 2·45 L of water will be required.
37. When hydrated ferric chloride is dissolved in aqueous solution of oxalic acid containing KOH, green crystals is obtained having formula
FeCl₃ + 6 KOH + 3 H₂C₂O₄ ➝ K₃[Fe(C₂O₄)₃] + 3 KCl + 6 H₂O
38. Consider the following statements for the complex [Ni(NH₃)₆]Cl₂:
1. It is an outer orbital octahedral complex 2. Hybridization of Ni is sp³d² 3. It is a paramagnetic complex 4. It is a diamagnetic complex
Which of the statements given above are correct?
39. For the redox reaction:
x MnO₄⁻ + y C₂O₄²⁻ + z H⁺ ➝ Mn²⁺ + CO₂ + H₂O, x, y and z for the balanced reaction are
40. Consider the following statements:
1. A chemical equilibrium is established when two exactly opposite reactions occur in the same container at the same time and with the same rates of reaction.
2. At equilibrium the concentrations of the chemical species become constant, but not necessarily equal.
3. Conjugate acid-base pairs differ only in a single H⁺; the one that has the extra H⁺ is the acid.
Choose the correct statements:
41. In a qualitative analysis when H₂S is passed through the solution of a salt acidified with HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO₃, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution will give deep blue ________.
42. Identify the product (X) in the reaction:
43. What is the correct IUPAC name of the structure given?
44. What is the EMF of the cell: Al(s) | Al³⁺(0.01 M) || Fe²⁺(0.1 M) | Fe(s)? [Given Eᵒ(Al³⁺/Al) = -1.66 V and Eᵒ(Fe²⁺/Fe) = -0.45 V]
45. If 1 g NaOH is added to 200 mL of 2·5 M solution of NaOH(aq), then what is the molarity of the resulting solution?
The average score is 6%
FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 03
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 03]
1. The hydrocarbon that cannot be prepared effectively by Wurtz reaction is
2. Identify the chemical species having maximum number of lone pair of electrons on the central atom, in its most stable structure:
3. The reaction aA(g) ⇌ bB(g) + cC(g) was carried out at a certain temperature with an initial pressure of A = 30 bar. Initially ‘B’ and ‘C’ were not present. If the equilibrium partial pressures of ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are 20, 5 and 10 bar respectively, then a:b:c is
4. If azimuthal quantum number (l) of an electron in an orbital is 2, the shape of the orbital should be
5. The emf of a cell corresponding to the following reaction is 0·199 V at 298 K.
Zn(s) + 2 H⁺ (aq) ➝ Zn²⁺(0·1 M) + H₂(g); (E⁰(Zn/Zn²⁺) = 0·76 V)
The approximate pH of the solution at the electrode where hydrogen is being produced is
6. Two solutions A and B, each of 100 L was made by dissolution of 4g of NaOH and 9.8 g of H₂SO₄ in water, respectively. The pH of the resultant solution obtained from mixing 40 L of solution A and 10 L of solution B is
7. Carbon suboxide (C₃O₂), has a linear structure. Which of the following is correct about C₃O₂?
I. Oxidation state of all three C atoms is +2.
II. Oxidation state of the central C atom is zero.
III. The molecule contains 4 σ and 4 π bonds.
IV. Hybridization of the central carbon atom is sp²
8. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0·6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol⁻¹) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol⁻¹) in 100 mL of water at 27 ⁰C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is :
(R = 0.08206 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
9. In order to oxidize a mixture of one mole of each of FeC₂O₄, Fe₂(C₂O₄)₃, FeSO₄ and Fe₂(SO₄)₃ in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO₄ required is:
10. A solution of Ni(NO₃)₂ is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using 0.1 faraday electricity. How many mole of Ni will be deposited at the cathode?
11. An organic compound 'A' (C4H10) when treated with conc. HI undergoes, cleavage yield compound 'B' and C'. ‘B' gives yellow precipitate with AgNO₃ where as tautomerizes to 'D'. 'D' gives positive iodoform test. 'A' could be:
12. Increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds for SN1 substitution is:
13. The quantum number of four electrons are given below:
I. n = 4, l = 2, m = 2, s = ﹣½
II. n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + ½
III. n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = + ½
IV. n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = ﹣½
The correct order of their increasing energies will be:
14. The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons ejected by a metal surface increased from 0.6 eV to 0.9 eV when the energy of the incident photons was increased by 20%. The work function of the metal is
15. A balance having a precision of 0.001 g was used to measure a mass of a sample of about 15g. The number of significant figures to be reported in this measurement is
16. In H-atom if electron absorbs a photon of 1·89 eV, then transition of electron is from
17. A₂(g) + 4 B₂(g) ⇌ 2 AB₄(g), ΔH < 0
Product formation is favoured by
18. The order of electron gain enthalpy in kJ/mol of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively are
19. A sample of a gas was analysed and found to contain 2·34 g of nitrogen and 5·34 g of oxygen. The vapour density of the gas was found to be about 45·9. What is the molecular formulas of this gas?
20. 25 g of an unknown hydrocarbon upon burning produces 88 g of CO₂ and 9 g of H₂O. This unknown hydrocarbon contains.
21. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and 600 mm Hg, respectively at 298 K. On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in vapour phase, respectively are:
22. The vapour pressure of benzene is 53.3 kPa at 60.6 ∞C, but it fall to 51.5 kPa when 19 g of a nonvolatile organic compound is dissolved in 500 g benzene. The molar mass of the nonvolatile compound is [assume dilute solution]
23. A chemical reaction is carried out at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ (T₂ > T₁) and also with and without a catalyst.
The statement that is correct among the following is
24. The ratio of the mass percentages of 'C & H' and 'C & O' of a saturated acyclic organic compound 'X' are 4 : 1 and 3 : 4 respectively. Then, the moles of oxygen gas required for complete combustion of two moles of organic compound 'X' is
25. What would be the molality of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI? (molar mass of KI = 166 g mol⁻¹)
26. Among the following maximum number of resonating structures are possible for
27. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The correct order of the atomic numbers of X, Y and Z is:
28. The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is:
1. 0.1 M Formic acid
2. 0.1 M Acetic acid
3. 0.1 M Benzoic acid
29. An electron present in the third excited state of a H atom returns of the first excited state and then to the ground state. If λ₁ and λ₂ are the wavelengths of light emitted in these two transitions respectively, λ₁:λ₂ is
30. Which of the following metal will exhibit photoelectric effect with photon having longest wavelength?
31. Gas phase reactions (i) and (ii) are of first and second order respectively
2N₂O₅ (g) ➝ 4NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g) ...................... (i)
2NO(g) + O₂(g) ➝ 2NO₂(g). ....................... (ii)
Under certain conditions, the rate constants (k₁, k₂) of (i) and (ii) respectively, have the same numerical value, when the concentrations of the reactants are expressed in mol/dm³.
If the concentrations are expressed in mol/mL, the correct relationship between k₁ and k₂ is
32. A cricket ball is moving with a kinetic energy of 5 J. The wavelength of the ball will be [h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ Js]
33. The process in which an ideal gas undergoes change from X to Y as shown in the following diagram is
34. If Ni²⁺ ion is replaced with Pt²⁺ ion in complex [NiCl₂Br₂], which of the following would change:
35. When 1 L of 0·1 M H₂SO₄ solution is allowed to react with 1 L of 0·1 M sodium hydroxide solution, the amount of Na₂SO₄ (anhydrous) that can be obtained from the solution formed and the concentration of H+ in the solution respectively are
36. A bottle of H₃PO₄ solution contains 70%(w/w) acid. If the density of the solution is 1·54 g cm⁻³, the volume of the H₃PO₄ solution required to prepare 1 L of I N solution is
37. For the reaction 2A + B ➝ C, the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are given in the table below: The rate law for the reaction is:
38. Among the statements (a - d), the incorrect ones are:
(a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have very high magnetic moments
(b) When Δ₀ < P, the d-electron configuration of Co(III) in an octahedral complex is (t₂g)⁴(eg)²
(c) Wavelength of light absorbed by [Co(en)₃]³⁺ is lower than that of [CoF₆]³⁻
(d) If the Δₒ for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is 18,000cm⁻¹, the Δt for its tetrahedral complex with the same ligand will be 16,000 cm⁻¹.
39. HF has highest boiling point among hydrogen halides, because it has:
40. What is the product of following reaction?
41. The C–C bond length is maximum in
42. NO₂ required for a reaction is produced by the decomposition of N₂O₅ in CCl₄ as per the equation:
2 N₂O₅ (g) ➝ 4 NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g)
The initial concentration of N₂O₅ is 3.00 mol L⁻¹ and it is 2.75 mol L⁻¹ after 30 minutes.
The rate of formation of NO₂ is :
43. O₂(g) is paramagnetic in nature because it has
44. Among the following, the correct statement/s about ‘p’ block elements is/are
I. The valence shell electronic configuration of all of them is ns²np¹⁻⁶, where n=1,2,3. . .
II. Only in p block, metals, nonmetals and metalloids are present.
III. Halogens have the lowest negative electron gain enthalpy in the respective periods.
IV. Noble gases have no tendency to accept an electron and hence they have large negative values of electron gain enthalpy.
45. A current of 5.0 A flows for 4.0 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of metal M. This results in deposition of 0.25 mol of the metal M at the cathode. The oxidation state of M in the molten salt is (1 Faraday = 96485 C mol⁻¹)
Restart quiz Exit
FULL SYLLABUS CHEMISTRY TEST: 04
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 04]
1. Consider a reaction with the following data:
What is the rate law?
2. Incorrect statement among the following :
3. Which of the following is true about Fuel Cell
4. For the given hypothetical reactions, the equilibrium constants are as follows:
X ⇌ Y; K₁= 1.0
Y ⇌ Z; K₂ = 2.0
Z ⇌ W; K₃ = 4.0
The equilibrium constant for the reaction, X ⇌ W is
5. Cis but-2-ene and trans but-2-ene are
6. Elevation in boiling point for 1·5 molal solution of glucose in water is 4 K. The depression in freezing point of 4.5 molal solution of glucose in water is 4 K. The ratio of molal elevation constant to molal depression constant (Kb/Kf) is
7. Boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute 1 is equal to the boiling point of 8% aqueous solution of a non volatile solute 2. The relation between molecular weight 1 and 2 is:
8. The correct order of the spin only magnetic moment of metal ions in the following low spin complexes, [V(CN)₆)⁴⁻, [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻, [Ru(NH₃)₆]³⁺, [Cr(NH₃)₆], and [Cr(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is:
9. If the half-life of a first-order reaction is 10 min, how long will it take for 75% of the substance to decompose?
10. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl₂, O₃, ClF₃ and SF₆ respectively, are:
11. At 27°C one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm. The values of U and q are respectively (R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1)
12. Identify the INCORRECT IUPAC Name of an Organic Compound:
I. 2, 3-Diethylbutane
II. 1-Aminomethanal
III. 3-Oxopropanal
13. For the following oxyacid formula HClOₓ (x lies between 1 to 4 ), which of the following is INCORRECT if value of x increases?
14. If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.1 M solution of urea are placed on two sides of the semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say that
15. 2·44 g of benzoic acid (C₆H₅COOH, Molar Mass = 122·00) dissolved in 25 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2·45 K. Molal depression constant for benzene is 4.9 K kg mol⁻¹. What is the percentage association of acid if it forms dimer in solution?
16. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule?
17. HF reacts with SiF₄ to give H₂[SiF₆], this is possible because
I. the number of valence orbitals of silicon is greater than four, and part of them are not occupied by valence electrons;
II. the number of valence electrons of silicon is four;
III. Having smaller size and basic nature of F⁻, favoured the formation of octahedral compound with Si.
Choose the correct statement(s):
18. What is the free energy change per mole when liquid water boils against 1 atm pressure? (ΔHvap = 2.0723 kJ/g)
19. In case of XeO₂F₂ and XeF₆, Xe is with
20. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4 Sm⁻¹. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in Sm²/mol will be
21. CₐHₓNₑ + CuO ➝ CO₂ + H₂O + N₂ + Cu. In the balanced chemical reaction for 1 mole of CₐHₓNₑ, number of moles of Cu produced would be:
22. What is the hybridization state of the circled nitrogens, respectively?
23. Consider the following statement(s):
I. Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethylcyclo- hexanone does not.
II. There are two –NH₂ groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involvedin the formation of semicarbazones III. Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol
The correct statements is/are:
24. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (K,) for the decomposition reaction N₂O₄ ⇌ 2NO₂, is expressed by Kp = (4x²P) /(1 - x²), where P = pressure, x = extent of decomposition. Which one of the following statements is true?
25. Which of the following element does not undergo disproportionation Reaction?
26. The species having bond order different from that in CO is
27. When 2-methylbut-3-en-2-ol is treated with concentrated hydrochloric acid, 1-chloro-3-methylbut-2-ene is produced, as shown in the above figure. Choose the INCORRECT statement about the reaction:
28. The amount of charge in (faraday) required to obtain one mole of iron from Fe₃O₄ is
29. Organic Compound A C₈H₈O gives 2,4-DNP and Iodoform test but does not reduce Tollens and Fehlings reagent neither decolorises Baeyer's reagent. On drastic Oxidation with H₂CrO₄ it gives B (C₇H₆O₂). A and B are respectively
30. In an experiment 0.22 g of magnesium pyrophosphate was produced from 0.1 g of an organic compound. Percentage of phosphorus in the compound is
31. For a first-order reaction, the time required to reduce the concentration from 1.0 M to 0.5 M is 20 min. Time required to reduce it from 2.0 M to 1.0 M is:
32. The periodicity in properties is a result primarily of
33. The number of structural and configurational isomers of a bromo compound , C₅H₉Br, formed by the addition of HBr to pent-2-yne respectively are
34. Enthalpies of combustion of CH₃OH, C, and H₂ are respectively: ﹣676, ﹣394 and ﹣242 kJ mol⁻¹, respectively. What would be the enthalpy of formation of CH₃OH?
35. A hydrocarbon X is optically active. X upon hydrogenation gives an optically inactive alkane Y. X is
36. In estimation of sulphur, 0.314 g of an organic compound gave 0.9626 g of barium sulphate (BaSO₄ = 233 g mol⁻¹). What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound?
37. An orange solid on heating gives a colourless gas and a green solid which can be reduced to metal by aluminium powder. Orange and green solids are respectively,
38. The following reaction occurs in the Blast furnace where iron ore is reduced to iron metal :
\(Fe_2 O_3(s) \ + \ 3CO(g) \rightleftharpoons Fe(l)\ +\ 3CO_2(g)\)
Using the Le-Chateler's principle, predict which one of the following will not disturb the equilibrium.
39. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement?
40. Which of the following statements is correct about a first-order reaction?
41. Which of the following best explains why salt is spread on icy roads in winter?
42. Consider the following statements regarding magnetism of two complexes:
I. [CoF₆]³⁻is a paramagnetic and high spin complex II. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is a diamagnetic and low spin complex
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
43. The enthalpy of vapourisation of a liquid is 30 kJ mol–1 and entropy of vapourisation is 75 mol–1 K. The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is
44. The IUPAC name of the given structure is:
45. In a reaction A → Products, doubling the concentration of A increases the rate by 8 times. The order of the reaction is:
NEET CHEMISTRY TEST 2026 [TEST 05]
1. Which of the following is/are non reducing sugar(s)?
2. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl₂, O₃, ClF₃ and SF₆ respectively, are:
3. Number of mole of Cr₂O₇²⁻ required to oxidise 4 mole of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium is:
4. For a zero-order reaction, which of the following is correct?
5. In a reaction A → Products, doubling the concentration of A increases the rate by 8 times. The order of the reaction is:
6. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K in thermal contact with surroundings expands isothermally from 1·0 L to 2·0 L against a constant pressure of 3·0 atm, the change in entropy of the system would be:
7. If Ni²⁺ ion is replaced with Pt²⁺ ion in complex [NiCl₂Br₂], which of the following would change:
8. If the half-life of a first-order reaction is 10 min, how long will it take for 75% of the substance to decompose?
9. The enthalpy of vapourisation of a liquid is 30 kJ mol–1 and entropy of vapourisation is 75 mol–1 K. The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is
10.
What is the configuration of the following compound?
11. The process in which an ideal gas undergoes change from X to Y as shown in the following diagram is
12. Absolute value of which of the following thermodynamic property can be calculated?
13. Solution of A(l) [vp = 600 mmHg] and B(l) [vp = 800 mmHg] form ideal solution with certain composition. What should be the vapour pressure of the resulting solution?
14. The best sequence of reactions for the following conversion is
15. In an experiment 0.22 g of magnesium pyrophosphate was produced from 0.1 g of an organic compound. Percentage of phosphorus in the compound is
16. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. What is the IUPAC name of B?
17. 10+20
18. For the given hypothetical reactions, the equilibrium constants are as follows:
19. The major product in the given reaction is:
20. 1 g of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298 K and 1 atmospheric pressure according to the equation:
21. When hydrated ferric chloride is dissolved in aqueous solution of oxalic acid containing KOH, green crystals is obtained having formula
22. If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.1 M solution of urea are placed on two sides of the semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say that
23. Sample solutions of each of the three acids (given in figure) were titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). Each of the acid solutions had a concentration of 0.10 M. Which of the acid titrations had the highest pH at the endpoint?
24. The solubility products (Ksp) for three salts MX, MY₂ and MZ₃ are 1 × 10⁻⁸, 4 × 10⁻⁹ and 27 × 10⁻⁸, respectively. The correct order for solubilities of these salts is
25. For a chemical reaction at 127 ᴼC, the activation energy is 600R. The ratio of rate constant at 327 ᴼC to that at 127 ᴼC will be
26. E⁰ for: [MnO₄]⁻ (aq) + 8 H⁺ (aq) + 5 e⁻ ⇌ Mn²⁺(aq) + 4 H₂O(l), is +1·51 V, what is the reduction potential in aqueous solution of pH = 2·5 having the ratio [Mn²⁺]:[MnO₄⁻] = 1 : 100?
pH = -log[H⁺]
[H⁺] = 10⁻²·⁵
Now apply the Nernst equation:
E = E⁰﹣(0·06)/(5) × log([Mn²⁺])/[MnO₄⁻][H⁺]⁸
E = 1·51 ﹣0·216 = + 1·294 V
27. The number of σ bonds in the structure 卐 is
28. How many mole of Au will be deposited on the cathode when 0·60 F of electricity is passed through 1 L solution of 0·10 M Au³⁺(aq)?
29. Identify the pair of linear molecules:
30. Boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute 1 is equal to the boiling point of 8% aqueous solution of a non volatile solute 2. The relation between molecular weight 1 and 2 is:
31. The reaction of 2, 4-hexadiene with one equivalent of bromine at 0⁰ C gives a mixture of two compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’. If ‘X’ is 4, 5-dibromohex-2-ene, ‘Y’ is
32. If bond dissociation energies for H-H, O=O and O-H bonds are respectively: 436, 499 and 464 kJ/mol, then what will be the enthalpy change for the reaction:
33. Consider the following statements:
34. How many stereogenic carbons are in the structure:
35. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule?
36. Consider the following statements:
37. Consider the following statements regarding magnetism of two complexes:
38. On increasing temperature from 27 ⁰C to 37 ⁰C, the rate of a chemical reaction becomes twice. What is the activation energy of the reaction?
39. When 3-Iodo-2,2-dimethylbutane is treated with KOH in ethanol, three elimination products are formed, identify the major one:
40. If 1 g NaOH is added to 200 mL of 2·5 M solution of NaOH(aq), then what is the molarity of the resulting solution?
41. In estimation of sulphur, 0.314 g of an organic compound gave 0.9626 g of barium sulphate (BaSO₄ = 233 g mol⁻¹). What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound?
42. Consider the following statements about plot of Intensity versus wavelength during black body radiation at various temperatures:
Choose the CORRECT statement
43. Which of the following is true about Fuel Cell
44. When 2-methylbut-3-en-2-ol is treated with concentrated hydrochloric acid, 1-chloro-3-methylbut-2-ene is produced, as shown in the above figure. Choose the INCORRECT statement about the reaction:
45. Elevation in boiling point for 1·5 molal solution of glucose in water is 4 K. The depression in freezing point of 4.5 molal solution of glucose in water is 4 K. The ratio of molal elevation constant to molal depression constant (Kb/Kf) is
